ISTQB Question Paper - Dump #12


1. Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part
of which phase
a) Test Implementation and execution
b) Test Analysis and Design
c) Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
d) Test Closure Activities

2. Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally
preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

3. A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following :-
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
d) i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25.
Indentify the invalid Equivalance class
a) 17
b) 19
c) 24
d) 21

5. In a Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks inorder to clear the exam. The
maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalance values if the student clears the
exam.
a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22

6. Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false:
a) static testing requires the running of tests through the code
b) static testing includes desk checking
c) static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
d) static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

7. Verification involves which of the following :-
i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.

iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

8. Component Testing is also called as :-
i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
d) all of above is true

9. Link Testing is also called as :
a) Component Integration testing
b) Component System Testing
c) Component Sub System Testing
d)Maintenance testing

10.
Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4
Conditions
Indian resident? False True True True
Age between 18 – 55? Don't care False True True
Married? Don't Care Don't Care False True
Actions
Issue Memebership? False False True True
Offer 10% discount? False False True False
A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta.
B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65 year old married person, residing in Colombo.
a. A – Issue membership, 10% discount, B – Issue membership, offer no discount. B
b. A – Don’t Issue membership, B – Don’t offer discount. C
c. A – Issue membership, no discount, B – Don’t Issue membership.
d. Issue membership, no discount, B- Issue membership with 10% discount.

11. Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-
a) Breadth Test and Depth Test
b) Retesting
c) Confirmation Testing
d) Sanity Testing

12. Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-
i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.

iv. Main Objective is to find defects
a) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
d) iii is true and I,ii,iv are false

13. The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order.
i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up
a) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
b) vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
c) i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
d) i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

14. Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer, which is operated by
pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on to Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and
the third press turns it off.
Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?
a. A,C,B
b. B,C,A
c. A,B,C
d. C,B,A

15. White Box Techniques are also called as :-
a) Structural Testing
b) Design Based Testing
c) Error Guessing Technique
d) Experience Based Technique

16. What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?
a) A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
b) An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case
c) An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
d) An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case.

17. The Test Cases Derived from use cases
a) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
b) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system
c) Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
d) Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

18. Exhaustive Testing is
a) Is impractical but possible
b) Is practically possible
c) Is impractical and impossible
d) Is always possible

19. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase
a) Creating test suites from the test cases
b) Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools

c) Comparing actual results
d) Designing the Tests

20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?
a) Statement Testing and coverage
b) Decision Testing and coverage
c) Condition Coverage
d) Boundary value analysis

21. A Project risk includes which of the following :
a) Organizational Factors
b) Poor Software characteristics
c) Error Prone software delivered.
d) Software that does not perform its intended functions

22. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :
i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

23. Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

24. The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objectives
b) Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations

25. A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a
formal review.
a) Moderator.
b) Scribe
c) Author
d) Manager

26. Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-
i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager
a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.

c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

27. Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through
a) Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
b) Pre Meeting Preparations
c) Formal Follow Up Process
d) Includes Metrics

28. What can static analysis NOT find?
a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations

29. Incidents would not be raised against:
a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users

30. A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to detection of threats, such as
virus from malicious outsiders.
a) Security Testing
b) Recovery Testing
c) Performance Testing
d) Functionality Testing

31. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
b) Logging the outcome of test execution.
c) Assessing if more tests are needed.
d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

32. Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the
performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under
these different workloads.
a) Load Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) System Testing
d) Usability Testing

33. Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between
integrated components is :-
a) System Level Testing
b) Integration Level Testing
c) Unit Level Testing
d) Component Testing

34. Static analysis is best described as:
a) The analysis of batch programs.
b) The reviewing of test plans.
c) The analysis of program code.
d) The use of black box testing.

35. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid

Equivalence class
a) BOOK
b) Book
c) Boo01k
d) book

36. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

37. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

38. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement document

39. Handover of Testware is a part of which Phase
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

40. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the
temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalance values
which belong to the same class.
a) 12,16,22
b) 24,27,17
c) 22,23,24
d) 14,15,19


ISTQB Question Paper - Dump #11


1. Which of the following is true
a. Testing is the same as quality assurance
b. Testing is a part of quality assurance
c. Testing is not a part of quality assurance
d. Testing is same as debugging

2. Why is testing necessary?
a. Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software
b. Because verification and validation are not enough to get to know the quality of the software
c. Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to increase the quality
d. Because testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections.

3. Integration testing has following characteristics
I. It can be done in incremental manner
II. It is always done after system testing
III. It includes functional tests
IV. It includes non-functional tests
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I is correct
c. I, III and IV are correct
d. I, II and IV are correct

4. A number of critical bugs are fixed in software. All the bugs are in one module, related to reports. The
test manager decides to do regression testing only on the reports module.
a. The test manager should do only automated regression testing.
b. The test manager is justified in her decision because no bug has been fixed in other modules
c. The test manager should only do confirmation testing. There is no need to do regression testing
d. Regression testing should be done on other modules as well because fixing one module may affect
other modules

5. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools?
a. Static analysis tools are used only by developers
b. Compilers may offer some support for static analysis
c. Static analysis tools help find failures rather than defects
d. Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage

6. In a flight reservation system, the number of available seats in each plane model is an input. A plane
may have any positive number of available seats, up to the given capacity of the plane. Using Boundary
Value analysis, a list of available – seat values were generated. Which of the following lists is correct?
a. 1, 2, capacity -1, capacity, capacity plus 1
b. 0, 1, capacity, capacity plus 1
c. 0, 1, 2, capacity plus 1, a very large number
d. 0, 1, 10, 100, capacity, capacity plus one

7. For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents minimum tests required for
statement and branch coverage respectively?
Discount rate=1;
Fare = 1000;
If ((person == “senior citizen”) and (“travel month = January”))
Bonuspoints = 100+Bonuspoints
If (class==”first”)
discountRate = .5;
Fare = fare * discountRate;

a. Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 2
b. Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 2
c. Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 3
d. Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 4

8. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools
a. They help you find defects rather than failures
b. They are used by developers only
c. They require compilation of code
d. They are useful only for regulated industries

9. Acme Inc. decides to use functional test execution automation tool for testing GUI of their product.
The GUI is expected to change frequently. Acme Inc. has put some of the manual testers through a 3
day training program on how to use the tool. Which of the following is likely to be true?
a. Automation is likely to fail because of frequent changes and lack of experience
b. Automation is likely to fail because of GUI automation is not the right way to automate
c. Automation is likely to succeed because automation is very useful for frequent changes
d. Automation is likely to succeed because the team has been trained on tool.

10. In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing. Which of the following
sentences describes one of these basic principles?
a. Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools
b. With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the
quality of a product than with manual testing
c. For a software system, it is not possible, under normal conditions, to test all input and output
combinations.
d. A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free.

11. Which of the following statements contains a valid goal for a functional test set?
a. A goal is that no more failures will result from the remaining defects
b. A goal is to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures can be identified and
fixed
c. A goal is to eliminate as much as possible the causes of defects
d. A goal is to fulfil all requirements for testing that are defined in the project plan.

12. In system testing...
a. .. Both functional and non-functional requirements are to be tested
b. ... Only functional requirements are tested; non-functional requirements are validated in a review
c. ... Only non-functional requirements are tested; functional requirements are validated in a review
d. ... Only requirements which are listed in the specification document are to be tested

13. Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formal review?
a. A walkthrough does not follow a defined process
b. For a walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional
c. A walkthrough requires meeting
d. A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the failures

14. Why does the boundary value analysis provide good test cases?
a. Because it is an industry standard
b. Because errors are frequently made during programming of the different cases near the ‘edges’ of the
range of values
c. Because only equivalence classes that are equal from a functional point of view are considered in the
test cases
d. Because the test object is tested under maximal load up to its performance limits


15. Which of the following list contains only non-functional tests?
a. Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing, performance testing
b. System testing, performance testing
c. Load testing, stress testing, component testing, portability testing
d. Testing various configurations, beta testing, load testing

16. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to be developed.
Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?
a. Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests
b. Software delivery is behind schedule
c. Threat to a patient’s life
d. 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated

17. Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?
a. Number of detected defects, testing cost;
b. Number of residual defects in the test object.
c. Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases prepared
d. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed

18. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Static analysis tools produce statistics during program execution
b. Configuration management systems allow us to provide accurate defect statistics of different
configurations
c. Stress testing tools examine the behaviour of the test object at or beyond full load
d. Performance measurement tools can be used in all phases of software life-cycle

19. What makes an inspection different from other review types?
a. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists
b. It is led by the author of the document to be inspected
c. It can only be used for reviewing design and code
d. It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement

20. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An
integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15
a. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15
b. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15
c. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15
d. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more

21. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: Paying
with credit cards shall be possible with Visa, Master and Amex cards only.
a. Visa, Master, Amex;
b. Visa, Master, Amex, Diners, Keycards, and other option
c. Visa, Master, Amex, any other card, no card
d. No card, other cards, any of Visa – Master – Amex

22. Which of the following techniques are black box techniques?
a. State transition testing, code testing, agile testing
b. Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, decision table testing
c. System testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning
d. System integration testing, system testing, decision table testing

23. A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered and enforce
the rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which method would be
best?
a. Logic-based testing

b. Use-case-based testing
c. State transition testing
d. Systematic testing according to the V-model

24. If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage
criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% branch coverage
b. 100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage
c. Equivalence class and boundary value coverage
d. No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%

25. This part of a program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% decision coverage?
a. 2
b. Indefinite
c. 1
d. 4

26. Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?
a. Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the testware and the
test object
b. Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change control board
c. Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management
d. Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools

27. What test items should be put under configuration management?
a. The test object, the test material and the test environment
b. The problem reports and the test material
c. Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
d. The test object and the test material

28. Why is successful test execution automation difficult?
a. Because the tools for automated testing require too much effort for learning
b. Because the maintenance of the test system is difficult
c. Because the test robot tools are restricted in their ability to recognize outputs
d. Because the test robot needs to be supported by a test management.

29. Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?
(I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.
(II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
(III) the specification was unclear
(IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up
(V) The testers were not certified
a. (I) and (II) are correct
b. (I) through (IV) are correct
c. (III) through (V) are correct
d. (I), (II) and (IV) are correct

30. Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?
a. For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one used British
units
b. The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure
c. The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the input error



cause
d. Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to

31. Which of the following project inputs influence testing?
(I) contractual requirements
(II) legal requirements
(III) Industry standards
(IV) application risk
(V) project size
a. (I) through (III) are correct
b. All alternatives are correct
c. (II) and (V) are correct
d. (I), (III) and (V) are correct

32. If a program is tested and 100% branch coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage
criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% Equivalence class coverage
b. 100% Condition coverage and 100% Statement coverage
c. 100% Statement coverage
d. 100% Multiple condition coverage

33. This part of a program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many paths should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% path coverage?
a. One
b. Indefinite
c. Two
d. Four

34. What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?
a. To specify when to stop the testing activity
b. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
c. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
d. To know when a specific test has finished its execution

35. Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?
a. The version number of the test object
b. Test data and used environment
c. Identification of the test case that failed
d. The location and instructions on how to correct the fault

36. V-Model is:
a. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with software
development phases
b. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing
c. The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB
d. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases

37. Why is incremental integration preferred over “big bang” integration?
a. Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation ability
b. Because “big bang” integration is suitable only for real time applications
c. Incremental integration is preferred over “Big Bang Integration” only for “bottom up” development
model

d. Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate component
testing

38. Maintenance testing is:
a. Testing management
b. Synonym of testing the quality of service
c. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software
d. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor

39. A test engineer is testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:
Title: Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes. It happens every time
Expected result: Fast forward continues till the end of the tape
Severity: High
Priority: Urgent
What important information did the engineer leave out?
a. Identification (Software and hardware) of the VCR
b. Actual result
c. History of the report
d. Ideas for the test case improvement

40. Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?
a. As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be the
most effective way to test the project on hand.
b. Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project
c. A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the test-cycles
d. Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme cases injury and
death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place.


ISTQB Question Paper - Dump #10


Q1 A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to end-users is called:
a)an error
b)a fault
c)a failure
d)a defect

Q2 Regression testing should be performed:
v)every week
w)after the software has changed
x)as often as possible
y)when the environment has changed
z)when the project manager says
a)v & w are true, x, y & z are false
b)w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c)w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d)w is true, v, x, y & z are false

Q3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except
a)test items
b)test deliverables
c)test tasks
d)test specifications

Q4 When should testing be stopped?
a)when all the planned tests have been run
b)when time has run out
c)when all faults have been fixed correctly
d)it depends on the risks for the system being tested

Q5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of
the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid
boundaries?
a)1000, 50000, 99999
b)9999, 50000, 100000
c)10000, 50000, 99999
d)10000, 99999, 100000

Q6 Consider the following statements about early test design:
i.early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii.faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii.early test design can find faults
iv.early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v.early test design normally takes more effort
a)i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b)iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c)i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d)i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false


Q7 Non-functional system testing includes:
a)testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b)testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c)testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d)testing for functions that should not exist

Q8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
a)auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b)status accounting of configuration items
c)identification of test versions
d)controlled library access

Q9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the
small?
a)to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b)to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c)to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d)to specify how the software should be divided into modules

Q10 What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
a)to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b)to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c)to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d)to determine when to stop testing

Q11 Consider the following statements:
i.an incident may be closed without being fixed.
ii.incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii.the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv.the incident record does not include information on test environments.
a)ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b)i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c)i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d)i and ii are true, iii and iv are false

Q12 Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required
for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF
a)1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b)1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c)1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d)2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage


Q13 Consider the following statements:
i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a)ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b)i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c)ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d)ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

Q14 Functional system testing is:
a)testing that the system functions with other systems
b)testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c)testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d)testing the system performs functions within specified response times

Q15 Incidents would not be raised against:
a)requirements
b)documentation
c)test cases
d)improvements suggested by users

Q16 Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a)operating systems
b)test documentation
c)live data
d)user requirement documents

Q17 Maintenance testing is:
a)updating tests when the software has changed
b)testing a released system that has been changed
c)testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d)testing to maintain business advantage

Q18 What can static analysis NOT find?
a)the use of a variable before it has been defined
b)unreachable (“dead”) code
c)memory leaks
d)array bound violations

Q19 Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a)state transition testing
b)LCSAJ
c)syntax testing
d)boundary value analysis

Q20 Beta testing is:
a)performed by customers at their own site
b)performed by customers at the software developer's site
c)performed by an Independent Test Team
d)performed as early as possible in the lifecycle


Q21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by
an independent system test team?
i.static analysis
ii.performance testing
iii.test management
iv.dynamic analysis
a)developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b)developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c)developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d)developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii

Q22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a)finding faults in the system
b)ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c)testing the system with other systems
d)testing from a business perspective

Q23 Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
a)black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
b)white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c)cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d)black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

Q24 Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a)inspection is the most formal review process
b)inspections should be led by a trained leader
c)managers can perform inspections on management documents
d)inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents

Q25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)calculating expected outputs
b)comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c)recording test inputs
d)reading test values from a data file

Q26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
a)re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected sideeffects
b)re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been
removed
c)re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d)re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers

Q27 Expected results are:
a)only important in system testing
b)only used in component testing
c)most useful when specified in advance
d)derived from the code

Q28 What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:
a)walkthrough

b)inspection
c)management review
d)post project review

Q29 Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a)component testing
b)non-functional system testing
c)user acceptance testing
d)maintenance testing

Q30 What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
a)setting up forms and databases
b)analysing metrics and improving processes
c)writing the documents to be inspected
d)time spent on the document outside the meeting

Q31Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a)to find faults in the software
b)to prove that the software has no faults
c)to give confidence in the software
d)to find performance problems

Q32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:
1.led by the author
2.undocumented
3.no management participation
4.led by a moderator or leader
5.uses entry and exit criteria
s)inspection
t)peer review
u)informal review
v)walkthrough
a)s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b)s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c)s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d)s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3

Q33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
a)business process-based testing
b)performance, load and stress testing
c)usability testing
d)top-down integration testing

Q34 Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
a)expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
b)expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c)expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d)expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

Q35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a)ISO/IEC 12207

b)BS 7925-1
c)ANSI/IEEE 829
d)ANSI/IEEE 729

Q36 The cost of fixing a fault:
a)is not important
b)increases the later a fault is found
c)decreases the later a fault is found
d)can never be determined

Q37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation
Standard?
a)what is not to be tested
b)test environment properties
c)quality plans
d)schedules and deadlines

Q38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
a)no, because they apply to development documentation
b)no, because they are normally applied before testing
c)yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d)yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

Q39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
a)measuring response times
b)recovery testing
c)simulating many users
d)generating many transactions

Q40 Error guessing is best used:
a)after more formal techniques have been applied
b)as the first approach to deriving test cases
c)by inexperienced testers
d)after the system has gone live